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goi (was: "ko" considered bad)
- To: John Cowan <cowan@LOCKE.CCIL.ORG>
- Subject: goi (was: "ko" considered bad)
- From: Cyril Slobin <slobin@FEAST.FE.MSK.RU>
- Date: Mon, 16 Oct 1995 17:42:28 +0300
- In-Reply-To: <199510131913.WAA10105@feast.fe.msk.ru>; from "Logical Language             G." at Fri, 13 Oct 1995 14:38:43 -0400
- Organization: Institute for Commercial Engineering
- Reply-To: Cyril Slobin <slobin@FEAST.FE.MSK.RU>
- Sender: Lojban list <LOJBAN@CUVMB.BITNET>
coi
> Though I think I would be more inclined to use  "ko goi mi'o" since we are
> redefining rather than restrictively identifying ko.
I have one related question here: {goi} is defined as being symmetical.
It gives us additional freedom when we have pro-sumti on one side and some
well-defined sumti on other. But the case with two pro-sumti seems obscure:
    {... ko'a goi la djan. ...}   - {ko'a} becomes {la djan.}
    {... la meris. goi ko'e ...}  - {ko'e} becomes {la meris.}
    {... ko'i goi ko'a ...}       - {ko'i} becomes {la djan.} too, at least
                                    unless it is already defined. BTW, what
                                    pro-* do you use for english "it" in my
                                    prevous sentence?
    {... ko'a goi ko'e ...}       - {ko'a} becomes {la meris.} or {ko'e}
                                    becomes {la djan.} ???
In your example {ko goi mi'o} we think that {mi'o} is usually defined better
than {ko}, but what is general rule?
And another question: does some way to set vocative scope? Something like:
"John, go to market and buy (Mary, don't cry!) some food!"
co'o mi'e kir.
--
Cyril Slobin <slobin@fe.msk.ru> `When I use a word,' Humpty Dumpty said,
<http://www.fe.msk.ru/~slobin/> `it means just what I choose it to mean'