Re: Cowan weighs in #1: specific, definite

[jorge@PHYAST.PITT.EDU]

la djan cusku di'e

> And holds that "a certain man" is specific; Jorge held that it was not.
> I believe that "a certain man" is indeed specific, as the speaker's intention
> fixes which man is meant, but it is not definite, because the listener has
> no way of knowing.

I withdraw my claim that it is not specific. Your explanation is very clear.

> On this view, the "normalness" of "Which man?" is not a
> test of specificity but of definiteness: a listener who says "Which?" to
> an indefinite reference is legitimately asking for a referent, whereas the
> listener who says "Which?" to a definite reference is expressing his
 confusion.

But since in Lojban indefiniteness is not marked, the Lojban equivalent of
"which?" would ask for specificity. The problem is that I can't think of
any good Lojban equivalent of "which?".

Jorge